Here is a list of sample questions that you might find in the Prince2 examinations.
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1. In PRINCE 2 what is the name of the product which is used to define the information which justifies the setting up, continuation or termination of the Project?
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a) Project Initiation Document
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1. Why does PRINCE 2 suggest that a Feasibility Study be run as a separate Project?
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a) Each option would have a different project plan, business case and set of risks
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b) Management may decide not to continue after the Feasibility Study
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c) It would over-complicate the Project
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d) PRINCE 2 cannot handle multiple options
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e) A Feasibility Study cannot be part of a programme
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3. Which role does PRINCE 2 suggest canvas the Project Board for agreement to implement a Project Issue?
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d) Project Issue Author
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4. Fill in the missing phrase from “ a Project is a Management environment that is created for the purpose of delivering one or more business products according
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a) The Customer’s Needs
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d) A Specified Business Need
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5. Who is appointed in the first sub-process of SU (Starting Up a Project)
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e) The Project Management Team
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6. When is a Stage deemed to be in exception?
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a) When Project tolerances have been exceeded
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b) When Stage tolerances have been exceeded
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c) As soon as a Request For Change or Off-Specification has been received
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d) As soon as current forecasts for the end of the Stage deviate beyond the delegated tolerance bounds
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7. Which statement is NOT a fundamental principle of “Closing a Project”?
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a) A clear end to a Project provides a useful opportunity to take stock of achievements
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b) A clear end to a Project provides an opportunity to ensure that all unachieved goals and objectives are identified
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c) A clear end to a Project provides the opportunity to evaluate achievement of all the expected benefits
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d) A clear end to a Project is always more successful than the natural tendency to drift into operational Management
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8. What is another term for “deliverable”?
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9. Which of these items does NOT involve the Project Board?
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a) Mid Stage Assessment
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d) Work Package Authorisation
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10. What name is given to the permissible deviation from a plan allowed without
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immediate reporting to the Project Board?
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11. What other control is closely linked with Configuration Management?
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12. Which of these processes does NOT trigger the Planning (PL) process?
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a) Starting Up a Project (SU)
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b) Initiation a Project (IP)
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c) Managing Stage Boundaries (SB)
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d) Controlling a Stage (CS)
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13. In a Product Breakdown Structure what category of product is a Highlight Report?
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14. If, after a Quality Review Follow-up Action, an error is still not resolved, what action should be taken?
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a) An Exception Report is made
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b) A Project Issue is raised
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c) An Exception Memo is raised
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d) The review is reconvened
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15. Which of the following is NOT a PRINCE 2 definition of a Project?
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a) Has a finite and defined life span
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b) Produces defined and measurable business products
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c) Uses a defined amount of resources
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d) Uses a defined set of techniques
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e) Has an organisation structure
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16. Which of the following is a key feature of PRINCE 2?
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a) Its emphasis on Risk Management
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b) Focus on business justification
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c) Application of specialised techniques
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d) Parallel with technical Stages
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17. Which element of PRINCE 2 tells the Project Manager where a product is, what its status is and who is working on it?
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d) Configuration Management
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18. In “Closing a Project” (CP) the project files are archived. What is the explanation given for this?
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a) To provide useful lessons to future projects
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b) Never throw anything away.
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c) This material may be needed by Programme Management
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d) To permit any future audit of the project’s actions
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19. Which of the following statements is FALSE? Project Managers using PRINCE 2 are able to …
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a) Establish terms of reference as a prerequisite to the start of the Project
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b) Use a defined structure for delegation, authority and communication
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c) Divide the Project into manageable Stages for more accurate planning
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d) Ensure resource commitment from Management is part of any approval to proceed
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e) Provide brief reports to Management at regular meetings
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20. Which of these in NOT a valid Risk Management action?
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21. Which one of these is NOT a PRINCE Component?
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d) Configuration Management
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22. Which document lists the major products of a plan with their key delivery dates?
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c) Product Breakdown Structure
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23. The question “How will I know when work on this product is finished as opposed to stopped?” performs what function?
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a) Tests the setting of Quality Criteria
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b) Triggers a change of status in Configuration Management
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c) Triggers a Quality Review
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d) Triggers the return of a Work Package
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24. Which part of a Product Life Cycle is not part of a Project Life Cycle in the eyes of PRINCE 2?
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a) The change-over to operational use of the product
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b) Assessment of the value of the product after a period of use
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c) The specification of the product
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d) Finalisation of the business case
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25. Whose specific responsibility is it to promote and maintain focus on the desired Project outcome?
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26. Which of these statements is FALSE?
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a) The Project Plan is an overview of the total Project.
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b) For each Stage identified in the Project Plan, a Stage Plan is required.
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c) An Exception Plan needs the approval of the Project Board.
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d) At least one Team Plan is needed for every Team Manager/Leader.
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27. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
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a) Customer quality expectations should be discovered in the process “Starting Up a Project”
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b) A company’s QMS becomes part of PRINCE 2
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c) PRINCE 2 may form part of a company’s QMS
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d) Quality Assurance is defined in the corporate quality policy
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e) The Stage Plan describes in detail how the Project Plan will be carried out
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28. Which one of these statements describes the true purpose of Acceptance Criteria?
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a) A justification for undertaking the Project based on estimated costs and anticipated benefits.
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b) A measurable definition of what must be done for the final product to be acceptable to the Customer.
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c) To provide a full and firm foundation for the initiation of a Project.
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d) To trigger Starting up a Project.
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29. How often does PRINCE 2 recommend that open Project Issues should be reviewed?
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a) At End Stage Assessments
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c) At Mid Stage Assessments
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d) At Checkpoint Meetings
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30. What other product is reviewed and updated at the end of each Stage apart from the Business Case and Project Plan?
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31. Why is a copy of the Project Issue always returned to the author?
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b) To acknowledge its receipt and entry into the system.
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c) To elicit further information.
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d) To notify rejection of the Issue.
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32. Which product covers “all the benefits which can be assessed at this time”?
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a) Post Implementation Review
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b) Post Implementation Review Plan
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d) Follow-on Action Recommendations
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33. Which of these statements is FALSE?
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a) A PRINCE Project has a finite life span
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b) A PRINCE Project has a defined amount of resources
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c) A PRINCE Project may have only activities, i.e. no products
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d) A PRINCE Project has an organisation structure with defined responsibilities, to manage the Project
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34. The person best situated to keep an eye on a Risk is called its …?
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35. Which document reviews actual achievements against the Project Initiation Document?
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b) Post Implementation Review
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c) Lessons Learned Report
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d) Follow-On Action Recommendations
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36. In PRINCE all potential changes are dealt with as …?
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37. Which one of these is NOT a key criteria for producing a Product Flow Diagram?
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a) Are the products clearly and unambiguously defined?
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b) On what other products is each product dependent?
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c) Is any product dependant on a product outside the scope of this plan?
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d) Which products can be developed in parallel?
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38. For a Quality Review, when are suitable reviewers selected?
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a) When the product is passed to Configuration Management
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b) In the Project Quality Plan
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c) During the QR Preparation step
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d) In planning the relevant Stage
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39. The existence of what product is checked in “Starting Up a Project” and its initial version finalised in “Initiating a Project”?
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40. Which does PRINCE regard as the third Project interest, given User and Supplier as the other two?
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41. Which of the following reasons for NOT planning a Project in detail at the start is FALSE?
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a) A changing or uncertain environment
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b) A prince requirement
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c) Difficulty in predicting business conditions in the future
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d) Difficulty in predicting resource availability well into the future
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42. In which process is the Project Brief formalised?
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a) Starting Up a Project
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b) Initiating a Project
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c) Authorising Initiation
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d) Authorising a Project
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43. When should a Product Description be baselined?
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a) As soon as it is available in draft form
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b) When the associated product has passed its quality check
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c) When the plan containing its creation is baselined
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d) As soon as it is written
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44. A typical Exception Plan covers what period?
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a) From the problem to the end of the Project
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b) From the problem to the end of the Stage
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c) The solution of the problem
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d) The work needed to put the Project back within its tolerances
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e) The time needed to produce an Exception Report
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45. Stage boundaries may be chosen according to a number of parameters. Which one of the following is NOT one of the parameters?
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a) The availability of specific resources
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b) The sequence and delivery of the products
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c) The grouping of products into self-consistent sets
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d) The natural decision points for feedback and review
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46. The initial Project Plan is based on the Project Brief, the Project Quality Plan and which other product?
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a) The Project Approach
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b) The Project Initiation Document
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c) The Project start-up notification
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47. Which document describes a failing of a product to meet the customer’s requirements?
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c) Follow-On Action Recommendations
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| 48. | If there is a request to change an approved product, and the change can be done within the Stage’s tolerances, who can make the decision to implement the change? |
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49. “Controlling a Stage” drives which other process on a frequent, iterative basis?
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a) Managing Stage Boundaries
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c) Managing Product Delivery
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50. Which statement from the following list is the principle behind authorising initiation, the first process in “Directing a Project”?
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a) The Programme Board should always agree the go-ahead at every End Stage Assessment
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b) No-one should commit to large expenditure on the Project before verifying that it is sensible to do so
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c) The Project Manager must be appointed
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d) Senior Managers like to be asked for their approval before the launch of anything
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51. What are defined as “partitions of the project with decision points”?
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b) Product Descriptions
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52. In which lower level process of “Controlling a Stage” is the Risk Log updated?
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a) Authorising Work Package
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c) Capturing Project Issues
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d) Examining Project Issues
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53. If a question arises on why a particular product was changed, which element of PRINCE 2 would be of most help in finding the information?
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c) Configuration Management
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54. In which sub-process is a Stage Plan updated with actuals?
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b) Reviewing Stage Status
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d) Reporting Highlights
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55. In which sub-process are Checkpoint Reports created?
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a) Executing a Work Package
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c) Reporting Highlights
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d) Reviewing Stage Status
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56. The decision on whether a Project’s solution will be contracted to third parties is made in which product?
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b) The Project Approach
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d) The Project Quality Plan
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57. The process, “Directing a Project” begins when?
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a) At the beginning of “Starting up a Project”
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b) After the start-up of the project
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c) At the end of the Initiation Stage
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d) Before start-up of the project
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58. Apart from “Initiating a Project” in which process is the Business Case updated?
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a) Managing Product Delivery
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c) Managing Stage Boundaries
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59. In the Planning process which product may impact on the number of stages and plan levels required?
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c) Project Initiation Document
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d) Project Quality Plan
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e) Product Breakdown Structure
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60. In the PRINCE project filing technique, how many major types of file are recommended?
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c) Just the Quality File
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d) One per Project Issue
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61. In a Quality Review which role does PRINCE 2 suggest must ensure that all reviewers are provided with the relevant review products?
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d) Configuration Librarian
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62. Which of these is mandatory in a PRINCE project?
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a) The use of Team Managers
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b) The use of Exception Plans
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d) The use of Quality Reviews
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63. How many types of risk does PRINCE identify?
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a) Financial and Technical
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b) Customer and Supplier
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c) Business and Project
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d) Analysis and Management
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64. What function creates, maintains and monitors the use of a Quality System?
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e) The Project Assurance Team
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65. Which is an UNTRUE purpose of Configuration Management?
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a) To identify products
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66. Which step is NOT part of “Accepting a Work Package”?
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a) Understand the reporting requirements
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b) Agree tolerance margins for the work package
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c) Monitor and control the risks associated with the work package
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d) Produce a team plan which shows that the work package can be completed within the constraints
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67. Which process provides the information needed for the Project Board to assess the continuing viability of the project?
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a) Starting up a Project
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d) Managing Stage Boundaries
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68. In which process are choices made about planning tools and estimating methods?
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a) Starting up a Project
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b) Initiating a Project
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c) Managing Stage Boundaries
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69. In which process are decisions made on exception situations?
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a) Managing Stage Boundaries
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d) Managing Product Delivery
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70. In which process are checks made for changes to the Project Management Team?
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a) Starting up a Project
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b) Managing Stage Boundaries
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71. From the products listed, which one is produced during ‘Starting Up a Project’?
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a) The Project Initiation Document
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c) The Project Quality Plan
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d) The Project Approach
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e) Project Filing Structure
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72. Quality responsibilities, both within and external to the project, are defined in which process?
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a) Initiating a Project
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b) Starting up a Project
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c) Managing Stage Boundaries
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73. Approval for the completed products is obtained as part of which process?
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b) Managing Product Delivery
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c) Managing Stage Boundaries
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74. An Exception Report is produced in which sub-process?
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a) Taking Corrective Action
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b) Reviewing Stage Status
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c) Escalating Project Issues
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d) Reporting Highlights
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75. Which is the missing section of the suggested Project File, if the others are Organisation, Plans, Business Case and Control?
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